no one answered my question, did the OP have a deed with this unit/building and week on it, and did OP list it with more than one broker involved, or no broker? who placed the 1st listing? what did OP list? someone back at the start of all this (the OP) seemed to have claimed they listed a particular unit in a particular building that they thought had a set time to use yearly. Is all this true? Is Hyatt different from Marriot, and you can actually own a given unit in a given building during a specific week (not floating like other places) and expect to use it every year? What did the buyer actually buy? Was this more an issue with the seller who claims the "right" to their listing but did not have an actual reservation for the week/unit/building at said resort, and the confusion has led to one or more of the brokers feeling they are offended and the buyer claimed interference in the purchase? This never got clearer, even as I went back and reread. Marriott's listed weeks seem to change every year, and the weeks 52 and sometimes 53 have never been explained to my satisfaction. I own Marriott, not Hyatt, so I have even less knowledge about how they designate timeshare weeks. Don't blame anyone for not being certain that there hasn't been more than one misunderstanding. 1 listing, 1 broker and a 2nd listing by a 2nd broker, and what was the real listing? were both of them the same or different? If both listings were accurate, why not say so? Don't take another tugger to task for asking for some clarity when the issues were clear as mud.