I think I’m beating a dead horse, but I don’t understand the connection you are trying to make between those two things.
Going to a presentation in exchange for an incentive gift, there is an implied contract which is fulfilled by both parties. The developer gives you the gift after you show up and subject yourself to sitting through the presentation. That’s a completed contract. Both parties did what they agreed to do. It doesn’t matter whether you intended to buy something after the presentation or not, because intent to buy was not a requirement or an expectation.
Vs
Signing a literal contract to buy which you have no intention of fulfilling – at least reportedly that’s what the couple later said they did – receiving value for signing the contract, and then refusing to pay as agreed and disputing the credit card charges. In this case you clearly have a broken contract and one which was entered with fraudulent intent. One party cheated the other one.
I don’t see any similarity or commonality between those two situations.
Now I’m sure the actual situation in Mexico is more complicated and nuanced than my simplistic example above, but what I fail to understand is how you can say that the second situation is somehow similar to the first.
But I’ll stop beating the horse now, lol.