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Has the minimum base interest threshold been lowered for every NEW owner purchase or just for this "deal" through Marriott? I guess what I'm asking is, can a NEW owner purchase 1000 points resale and have unrestricted use?
Also, roughly what are the closing costs associated with this purchase through Marriott - assuming no financing?
See post #6. Per SeaDoc, the amount of points for a Base Interest was lowered to 1000. This might also make it easier for all those legacy owners that bought 1000 points packages to sell them on the resale market.
I still don't think it's good business to promote a benefit to a potential buyer if it is highly unlikely that buyer will ever be able to book that dream vacation in their limited six-month window. Yes, before they couldn't book it at all, but that doesn't mean they have a realistic shot at getting it now. I would suggest that today's odds are greater than 0%, but maybe not substantially greater. I still think it's misleading to use that as an example. I guess that's why I don't sell timeshares.
Your other pitch that it allows you to take a decent points vacation every three years or so and then use II Getaways the other two years is a much more honest and defensible pitch - maybe not as sexy as a $4000/night residence, but certainly more realistic and attainable.
I think Jim's point was that your example fails as the buyer couldn't book what you see now (not that they didn't use to have access to "Luxury" resorts).
But so long as you tell them "Look at my computer screen, I'm showing you availability that I can see but would be unavailable to you, so me showing you is pointless...", then its all good.
See post #6. Per SeaDoc, the amount of points for a Base Interest was lowered to 1000. This might also make it easier for all those legacy owners that bought 1000 points packages to sell them on the resale market.
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