Regardless of whether or not I paid before the bill showed up - - the computer system knew, recognized and adjusted for 2 things prior to or at the time that the bill being sent out:
1. I paid the mandatory fees in full and
2. I declined to pay any funds to ARDA
Then the computer system
1. Recognized that I paid all mandatory fees in full and
2. Refused to recognize that I declined any payment for ARDA
BTW, I prepay my MF on my Sands of Kahana timeshare so that I can book a week before I've paid. I've done it for ten years. They also have an "opt-in" for an ARDA contribution. But, they have never sent me any sort of supplementary "bill" or invoice.
So, maybe the Marriott IT department has done a poor job in programming their financial system or maybe they are trying to take another bite of the apple. Perhaps some of you who seem to have a crystal ball can better determine this - - at least in your own mind. Marriott corporate reached out to me and said that they had not seen this before. They said that THEY found it misleading. Are they lying? Misinformed? or something else. Who knows. But for me to find it strange to get another document from Marriott after I paid in full seemed strange. BTW, the ARDA detail wasn't on the page that showed that I owed $20. It was on the back side. It was not on the part that was supposed to be mailed in. There was only two lines on the backside. My wife, who is a CPA and has an MBA (that is, a person with a high IQ) thought that I screwed up the original payment and was prepared to pay the $20. So was the bill misleading? I think that it would be considered to be misleading for a large number of recipients.
I find that some of you fellow tuggers have been a bit quick to blame me. I paid a bill in full at the point that their accounting system was loaded with the data to recognize that I had an outstanding amount due. And then, after paying that bill, I receive another invoice for an option donation that I had specifically declined. So, did I prepay? Well, not really. Perhaps I paid before they sent out the paper bill, but I really didn't prepay. Their system was ready to accept my payment. But, the ARDA contribution part wasn't confusing. Marriott obfuscated or clouded the issue. I travel quite a bit (sometimes for a month or more) and often prepay a bill when I know that I won't return home before it is due. VISA, AMEX, electric bill, water bill, etc. I don't recall having any sort of issue by pre-paying a bill. All of those systems never resulted in a subsequent bill. But I did have a problem with Marriott. And several of you found me at fault for prepaying my bill. That is, paying a bill that shows up on my on-line account. Come on folks.
When YOU pay a bill in full and then receive an additional "bill" or invoice for charges that are not required, would YOU find it irritating and perhaps a little sleazy? So - - hypothetically - - would any of you deniers find it irritating if every single VISA or AMEX or water or electricity bill that you paid resulted in a supplimentary invoice for voluntary contributions which you previously chose not to opt-in? Or if after you pay your income taxes, the IRS contacts you with an invoice for a contribution to your designated party or to Unisef or ACS, etc. Also - - voluntary contributions where it isn't 100% obvious that the "contributions" are actually voluntary? That is, where it says that the amount "due" (the "contribution") is subject to late fees and/or a minimum service fee? When I read the portion about the late fees I wasn't 100% positive that the ARDA fee was 100% optional. But, I was skeptical so I called Marriott. They told me it was misleading. They said that they thought that their system should not have sent me a subsequent invoice. So, I posted on Tug because I was irritated and thought that others may become mislead. Several people commented that they found the ARDA billing to be at least a bit confusing.
Come on folks. I'm a fellow tugger. There isn't need to be hostile to me or to be quite so negatively judgmental.
