My reading of the Florida Timeshare Act states “the voting interest or consent right allocated to a unit owned by the association may not be exercised or considered for any purpose, whether for a quorum or purpose of voting”.
Our Timeshare Association owns approximately 400 units for which it rents those weeks to owners and via other booking sites example hotel.com. A question arose where the board was voting those association owned units, thus in effect controlling ghe majority of decisions owners voted on.
Question would the Florida act be a precedent for other states regarding association units voting?
Our Timeshare Association owns approximately 400 units for which it rents those weeks to owners and via other booking sites example hotel.com. A question arose where the board was voting those association owned units, thus in effect controlling ghe majority of decisions owners voted on.
Question would the Florida act be a precedent for other states regarding association units voting?