Why do you keep saying you need a judgment to get a hit on your credit report. So if I pay my mortgage late every month (or stop) paying, this won't show up on my credit report until they sue and get a judgment? Of course it will.
I don't know the answer to the OP's question, or the other jurisdictional issues you raise, but clearly you don't need a judgment to ding a credit report.
In the USA, a company needs to be approved through an application process by the credit companies to extend credit , see reports and give reports. Your bank and all others companies that offer credit have been approved to do this. That is why they can report your missed payments and ding your credit score. These companies that extended credit in the USA make a debtor fill out a personal credit application which gives them permission to look at your credit.
If a business has not been approved to run credit reports they would need to go to court to get a judgement. The judgement will show up as a derogatory on that persons credit report. With a judgement they can then try to collect. A judgement doesn't mean that the debtor will pay.
When a person purchases, lets say a timeshare in Mexico, they do not fill out a credit application and no one checks their credit score because these international companies are not approved by the credit companies in the USA. Since they are not approved by the credit bureaus in the USA they can not report to the credit agencies in the USA. I doubt that any international company can do anything other than get a judgement in their own country which is unenforceable in the USA.
So yes, there needs to be a judgement to ding a persons credit if they are not affiliated with the credit bureaus.
Bill