jebloomquist
TUG Member
- Joined
- Mar 28, 2011
- Messages
- 604
- Reaction score
- 75
- Location
- Hatboro, PA
- Resorts Owned
- Bali Hai, Sedona, Panama City, Canterbury, Angel Fire, Royal Garden
As I look at timeshare listings on eBay, many currently state that the seller has paid part or the year’s entire maintenance fee, and that at the end of the auction, the mf must be paid back to the seller. Some may think that this is fair. I don’t, and here is why.
The seller has had access to the timeshare up until now in the year. He/she just hasn’t chosen to use it. When the listing states “usage begins January 1, 2012” I ask, “Can I use it then on January 1, 2012?” No. I probably won’t have access to the deed until July 2012. The seller chose not to use the property, but still they want me to pay for their choice to not use.
An analogy is as follows. Assume that I lease a car on January 1, 2012. The deal is that I should pay some amount for 12 months and drive no more than 12,000 miles. Fine.
But, if I come in July 1, 2012 and ask for a lease, I would not accept the same dollar deal where even though I get 12,000 miles usage, these miles have to be used between July 1, 2012 and December 31, 2012. I wouldn’t have had the use of the car from January 1 through June 30 even though I still get 12,000 miles. Imagine leasing in December and being told that you have the entire 12,000 miles but have to use them all in December.
When buying a timeshare, it is not just the weeks or points, it is also the ability to use the weeks or points. Half way through the year, I am not getting the ability to use the weeks or points anytime during the full year.
Imagine someone selling a timeshare in December, stating that you get all the points for 2012, but still must pay the entire year’s mf. Gee, great, and I have one month to use all those points.
Where is the middle ground? I wouldn’t mind paying for half of the mf that has passed, but not all of it. If I buy now in March, the final deed may not get to me until June or July, at which time I do have usage access. So, I think that the seller should pay for at least 3 of the 6 months that I don’t have access to the timeshare, even though I get all the points. Frankly, I won’t bid on any timeshares where I am required to pay for the entire mf when I cannot have full access to it.
Am I crazy? Are there any other opinions?
The seller has had access to the timeshare up until now in the year. He/she just hasn’t chosen to use it. When the listing states “usage begins January 1, 2012” I ask, “Can I use it then on January 1, 2012?” No. I probably won’t have access to the deed until July 2012. The seller chose not to use the property, but still they want me to pay for their choice to not use.
An analogy is as follows. Assume that I lease a car on January 1, 2012. The deal is that I should pay some amount for 12 months and drive no more than 12,000 miles. Fine.
But, if I come in July 1, 2012 and ask for a lease, I would not accept the same dollar deal where even though I get 12,000 miles usage, these miles have to be used between July 1, 2012 and December 31, 2012. I wouldn’t have had the use of the car from January 1 through June 30 even though I still get 12,000 miles. Imagine leasing in December and being told that you have the entire 12,000 miles but have to use them all in December.
When buying a timeshare, it is not just the weeks or points, it is also the ability to use the weeks or points. Half way through the year, I am not getting the ability to use the weeks or points anytime during the full year.
Imagine someone selling a timeshare in December, stating that you get all the points for 2012, but still must pay the entire year’s mf. Gee, great, and I have one month to use all those points.
Where is the middle ground? I wouldn’t mind paying for half of the mf that has passed, but not all of it. If I buy now in March, the final deed may not get to me until June or July, at which time I do have usage access. So, I think that the seller should pay for at least 3 of the 6 months that I don’t have access to the timeshare, even though I get all the points. Frankly, I won’t bid on any timeshares where I am required to pay for the entire mf when I cannot have full access to it.
Am I crazy? Are there any other opinions?