In Florida, a married couple can hold title as a tenancy by the entireties, which means both own the whole, and in that case, both have to sign. However, when the couple divorce, it's converted to another type of co-ownership -- a tenancy in common (unless the parties re-deed it to themselves as a joint tenants "with right of survivorship" -- not likely in a divorce).
As tenants in common, each owns a 50% undivided interest (unless otherwise specified). Each is free to sell, mortgage or divest themselves of their 50% interest without the consent or involvement of the other. Thus, she could easily find herself with a new undesireable "partner" in their venture. She can also deed her interest to someone else. She could also sue for "partition," meaning a court-ordered sale and division of proceeds.
I don't disagree with your above quoted observations, but I respectfully submit that it is both relevant and important to note that (according to the OP, at least as I understood her) their mutual agreement even upon divorce was to knowingly, willfully and deliberately have the ownership remain as tenants in the entirety.
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